Talk:Allegorical interpretation of the Bible

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Bias

'It is a common misconception that Paul the Apostle's Letter to the Galatians, in the New Testament, interprets the story of Sarah and Hagar (Genesis 16:1-6) allegorically (Galatians 4:21-24). Rather Paul is explaining an allegory - these are two entirely different things. An explanation is not a call for universal use of an interprative method. Paul explains Hagar's son Ishmael is a representation of the fleshly children of Abraham and Sarah's son Isaac is a representation of the spiritual children of Abraham, the "children of the promise." ' - This sounds rather biased. Perhaps it should be removed?

Untitled

This page needs serious editing. Whoever wrote this is a moron:

The page originally stated that Allegorical Interpretation referred "in particular [to] the Old Testament story"

Is this true? ~ Dpr 01:35, 5 May 2005 (UTC)[reply]

If you have in mind, that allegory is used in interpreting Bible and the earliest examples are from the milieu of judaism, then yes. The question is rather, is allegorical method strictly specific to the Bible? Or is it possible for other religions (islam) to have the same method? As far as I understand, allegorical interpretation presupposes canonical status of the text. What is a canonical status, is of course other matter -- Aethralis 11:27, 15 December 2005 (UTC)[reply]

Definition

The only explanation here about what "allegorical interpretation" actually is calls it: "the approach which assigns a higher-than-literal interpretation to the contents of a text." What in the world does that mean? Propaniac (talk) 19:04, 19 August 2009 (UTC)[reply]